justin_gatlin — 2017-09-13T17:56:10-04:00 — #1
1 Corinthians 3:19 is a tight quotation of Job 5:13. What does Paul quote Eliphaz authoritatively, despite God's condemnation of Eliphaz? How should this affect the way we quote human speeches in the OT?
I don't buy the "well, they were inspired, so they could use the OT however they want" argument. Paul is using the OT to try and make a point, so he is using it in a way he expects the Corinthians to respect.
dave_l — 2017-09-13T18:59:13-04:00 — #2
Isn't this a situation where truth is truth regardless of how some might misapply it? The last time I read Job I finished with the impression that Job's friends believed gain was godliness. And since Job lost most of what he gained, he must have been sinning. And too, Job in declaring his righteousness made God out to be unjust for his predicament. All had truth worth quoting and living by. But we don't always have the wisdom in how to apply it.